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| uk.legal.moderated (Legal Topics Relevant To UK Law - Moderated) (uk.legal.moderated) To enable contributors who have genuine legal problems to ask for practical advice from other people (lawyers or laymen) who have had to deal with similar problems in the past. Advertising is forbidden. |
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#11
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On Sat, 11 Oct 2008 19:10:07 +0100, Roland Perry
wrote: In message , at 18:50:17 on Sat, 11 Oct 2008, Anthony R. Gold remarked: As he now claims to have been employed, ... maybe you owe him nothing and all his gross pay must go to HMRC, in addition to your own missing contributions. Remembering also that in order to introduce him into your PAYE scheme, he will have to provide a P45 from his previous employment/benefits, so there's nothing can be done until he produces that. No, the employer's liability to pay contributions is effective as soon as employment starts (and they must be paid within a fairly short time, otherwise interest and penalties acrue). If the required paperwork to determine the correct code for the employee is not available, there is an "emergency code" which determines the amount payable. The employers' guide to PAYE deals with this in detail; any tax office can advise. -- Don Aitken Mail to the From: address is not read. To email me, substitute "clara.co.uk" for "freeuk.com" |
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#12
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wrote:
My intention was to settle the bill if the Police decided not to proceed any further. If they decide to prosecute, the bill will only be paid after conviction or aquittal, and if convicted, only after recovery of the money taken. Doesnt sound unreasonable does it ? In brief, yes it does sound unreasonable. Innocent until proven guilty should ring a few bells. And there's also the point that irrespective of what he has done, you and he had a contract. However as Tony Gold has pointed out, since he's claiming he was an employee you as an employer must make appropriate deductions from his pay. |
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#13
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In message , at 20:10:04 on
Sat, 11 Oct 2008, Don Aitken remarked: Remembering also that in order to introduce him into your PAYE scheme, he will have to provide a P45 from his previous employment/benefits, so there's nothing can be done until he produces that. No, the employer's liability to pay contributions is effective as soon as employment starts (and they must be paid within a fairly short time, otherwise interest and penalties acrue). If the required paperwork to determine the correct code for the employee is not available, there is an "emergency code" which determines the amount payable. The employers' guide to PAYE deals with this in detail; any tax office can advise. I'm aware of the emergency tax code regime, but doesn't the employer need at least the employee's NI number first? -- Roland Perry |
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#14
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On Oct 11, 8:25 pm, (Steve Firth) wrote:
wrote: My intention was to settle the bill if the Police decided not to proceed any further. If they decide to prosecute, the bill will only be paid after conviction or aquittal, and if convicted, only after recovery of the money taken. Doesnt sound unreasonable does it ? In brief, yes it does sound unreasonable. Innocent until proven guilty should ring a few bells. £150 missing, nobody but him had any opportunity whatsoever to take it. That proves his guilt beyond any doubt (to me at least). And there's also the point that irrespective of what he has done, you and he had a contract. I suppose we did, he was self employed and provided a service, his bill is just over £100, he owes me another £50 .However as Tony Gold has pointed out, since he's claiming he was an employee you as an employer must make appropriate deductions from his pay. That actually gives me a problem, as I only wanted someone for a maximum of 16 hours per week ( I didnt want the hassle of NI contributions etc), he sometimes took longer than 16 hours to complete jobs. If thats the case i would have to pay NI contributions for him, it wasnt part of the deal, neither was being an employee (his choice not mine). Never under any circumstances would i have employed him for more than 16 hours if he had been an employee. Furthermore if i make reductions, I'm admitting he was an employee. He simply wasn't, and didn't want to be. |
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#15
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On Sat, 11 Oct 2008 20:45:09 +0100, Roland Perry
wrote: In message , at 20:10:04 on Sat, 11 Oct 2008, Don Aitken remarked: Remembering also that in order to introduce him into your PAYE scheme, he will have to provide a P45 from his previous employment/benefits, so there's nothing can be done until he produces that. No, the employer's liability to pay contributions is effective as soon as employment starts (and they must be paid within a fairly short time, otherwise interest and penalties acrue). If the required paperwork to determine the correct code for the employee is not available, there is an "emergency code" which determines the amount payable. The employers' guide to PAYE deals with this in detail; any tax office can advise. I'm aware of the emergency tax code regime, but doesn't the employer need at least the employee's NI number first? It's a long time since I had to do this stuff, but I think you just put "not known". The liability arises from the fact of employment. even if you know nothing about they employee at all. I have a vague momory that the guide specifies what to do when you don't even have a name. -- Don Aitken Mail to the From: address is not read. To email me, substitute "clara.co.uk" for "freeuk.com" |
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#16
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#17
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In message , at 19:10:07 on Sat, 11 Oct
2008, Roland Perry wibbled Remembering also that in order to introduce him into your PAYE scheme, he will have to provide a P45 from his previous employment/benefits, so there's nothing can be done until he produces that. Not so. A recent P45 must be used, if available, to determine PAYE tax code and thus any tax deductions. If not available then a P46 declaration signed by the employee must be used in determining the correct emergency code to be used. In the absence of a P45 or P46 then a code of BR must be applied. NI deductions once the NI threshold is reached are independent of the tax code applied. -- Pedt |
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#18
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In message , at 18:50:17 on
Sat, 11 Oct 2008, Anthony R. Gold wibbled On Wed, 8 Oct 2008 21:10:06 +0100, wrote: I have still not paid his last invoice, he is now threatening to take me to a tribunal as he now claims he was an employee. I really can't see what right you have to withhold any pay, whether it is self-employed or employed. He worked and you owe. Whether you have a claim against him, or the police have a case against him, both seem to me to be unconnected with your clear contractual towards him. Agreed. As he now claims to have been employed, and from the sounds of that he is right, It would appear to be so unless the OP is withholding some critical information you also have obligations both to make insurance payments and also to withhold money from his pay for tax and insurance. His pay will be deemed to be net of tax and NI. As that obligation will have started eight weeks ago, because clearly can't ever have been self-employed if he was not at the end, Agreed. you must calculate eight weeks worth of withholdings before paying him the first penny. So maybe you owe him nothing and all his gross pay must go to HMRC, in addition to your own missing contributions. Not so. If a decision is made that he was employed, the position will most likely be that he has been paid net wages. Therefore deducting unpaid tax and NI from the final payment will be an unlawful deduction from wages. The OP would then need to back calculate what the gross pay would have been net of tax and EENI (and without a P45 or P46 the HMRC rules are to apply a BR tax code). He can then calculate any ERNI due. Tax+EENI+ERNI will then be paid by the employer to HRMC under his Accounts Office Reference as an employer. I'd like to make an example of him, and sue him for the missing money, though admittedley I only have circumstantial evidence. You will waste time and also good money after bad. Agreed. IANAL but I have worked as Technical Manager on contract to the Inland Revenge. -- Pedt |
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#19
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In message , at
01:10:07 on Sun, 12 Oct 2008, Owain remarked: I'm aware of the emergency tax code regime, but doesn't the employer need at least the employee's NI number first? The employer would normally obtain this as part of the checking to ensure the employee has the legal right to work in the UK. And what evidence would a born-Brit have *apart* from a P45 from a previous employer? -- Roland Perry |
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#20
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In message , at 08:35:05 on
Sun, 12 Oct 2008, Pedt remarked: you also have obligations both to make insurance payments and also to withhold money from his pay for tax and insurance. His pay will be deemed to be net of tax and NI. That's a very good point. iirc You can't go back and make retrospective deductions of NI under any circumstances, but I can't see why the final payment can't be made taking into account any back-tax due. After all, even if the OP doesn't deduct that tax [1] then the next employer will [2], so at the end of the day the employee is not out of pocket either way. [1] Could be zero, of course, but as others have said more likely to be "emergency code". [2] Or maybe the next employer will end up refunding the emergency-code tax. -- Roland Perry |
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